Frequently Asked Questions

بسم الله والحمد لله والصلاة والسلام على رسول الله

Amongst other claims, the speaker (in the video link) makes the following claims:

1. Abrogation is like "correcting" almost giving a human image to Allâh that He somehow says something and then changes it (Allâh forbid)
2. There is no authentic Hadeeth which mentions that a particular verse has been abrogated by another
3. Imam Fakhruddeen ar-Râzi (رحمه الله) was of the view that there is no Naskh in the Qur-ân
4. He (the speaker) has the "audacity" to "side with the minority" in the view that there is no abrogation in the Qur-ân at all

This is not meant to be a complete and full rebuttal of the claims made which is why we will only address the 4 claims above. This should be more than sufficient to prove that abrogation (naskh) does exist in the Qur-ân.

Claim 1: Likening abrogation to correction

This is incorrect and a misunderstanding of the wisdom behind abrogation. Allâh is the All-Knowing and He knows which ruling is appropriate when. Sometimes a certain prohibition was eased upon the people rather being brought immediately at the beginning of the Revelation. Once the time was appropriate in the Wisdom of Allâh, the previous verses were replaced.

A prime example of this is the gradual prohibition of wine/alcohol. First, it was pointed out that the harms outweigh the benefits:

"They ask you about wine and gambling. Say, 'In them is great sin and [yet, some] benefit for people. But their sin is greater than their benefit.'" 1

followed by prohibition of performing prayers while intoxicated:

"O you who believe! Do not approach the prayer while you are intoxicated..." 2

and finally the process of abrogation was completed by its total prohibition:

"O you who believe! Intoxicants, gambling, [...] are but defilement (abomination) from the work of Satan, so avoid it that you may be successful. Satan only wants to cause between you enmity and hatred through intoxicants and gambling and to hinder you from the remembrance of Allâh and from prayer. So will you not desist?" 3

Claim 2: No authentic Hadeeth

This is a bizarre claim to make. There are numerous narrations many of which are authentic including from Bukhari and Muslim. A single Hadeeth is presented as an example:

"The Messenger of Allâh (ﷺ) abrogated some of his commands by others, just as the Qur-ân abrogates some part with the other." 4

Claim 3: Imâm Râzi (رحمه الله) held this view

This does not hold true as Imâm Râzi not only affirms Naskh, but also refutes those who deny it and substantiates his claims with evidence.5

Even if, for the sake of argument, we accept that he held this view, it would be an isolated opinion which is not valid.

Claim 4: Siding with the minority view

The speaker himself admits that he has the "audacity" to leave the majority view in favour of the minority view. However, to state that it is a minority view is also incorrect.

Naskh is established through the Qur-ân (some of which he quotes and misinterprets), Sunnah and ijma' (consensus of the Ahlus Sunnah). Complete denial of Naskh is not simply a "minority view", but an isolated and extreme view.

Taking this path which contradicts clear verses of the Qur-ân and authentic narrations, the opinions of all major scholars of Tafseer, Hadeeth and Fiqh, and all schools of thought leads to error, deviation and misguidance. May Allâh protect.

And Allâh knows best

Answered by (Abu Yousuf) M. Suhail

• 1. يسـٔلونك عن الخمر والميسر قل فيهما إثم كبير ومنٰفع للناس وإثمهما أكبر من نفعهما (Qur-ân 2:219)
• 2. يٰأيها الذين اٰمنوا لا تقربوا الصلوٰة وأنتم سكٰرىٰ (Qur-ân 4:43)
• 3. يٰأيها الذين اٰمنوا إنما الخمر والميسر والأنصاب والأزلٰم رجس من عمل الشيطٰن فاجتنبوه لعلكم تفلحون (Qur-ân 5:90)
• 4. كَانَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم يَنْسَخُ حَدِيثُهُ بَعْضُهُ بَعْضًا كَمَا يَنْسَخُ الْقُرْآنُ بَعْضُهُ بَعْضًا (Muslim)
• 5. See Tafseer al-Kabeer (also known as Mafatih al-Ghayb), in particular the commentary under verse 2:106

بسم الله والحمد لله والصلاة والسلام على رسول الله

Firstly, how much and what Zakâh is due on an investment depends on the nature/intention of the investment: 1) If it's with the intention to sell, the entire value of the investment is subject to Zakâh as it is treated as trade stock[1].
2) If it's only to gain a profit, then whether you pay Zakâh on the investment or not depends on the type of investment, e.g. -

• rental property or similar: no Zakâh due as it's not a Zakâtable asset;
• shares in a company or similar: Zakâh is due on the Zakâtable assets of the company/investment - cash, gold, silver, trade stock, etc.

There isn't enough information in your question to determine the exact nature, but it seems as if it's only to gain a profit. Use the above guideline to determine whether Zakâh is payable at all on the investment itself.

In addition to the above, Zakâh is also due on any dividends/profits.

Now, on to your question. It's important to note that Zakâh is payable on whatever you possess on your nisâb date (the date when you reached nisâb), not the total income that was derived from your investment.

In other words, no Zakâh is due upon the money that has been spent. If you have deductible liabilities, e.g. debt such as a personal loan, this can be deducted to reduce your Zakâh liability. If your assets minus your liabilities fall below the nisâb figure (see our nisâb tool for more details), no Zakâh will be due at all.

The injunctions in Islam are meant to be easy and not cause difficulty:

"Allâh does not intend to make difficulty for you" [2]

"Allâh does not charge (make responsible) a soul except [with that within] its capacity..." [3]

"Allâh intends for you ease and does not intend for you hardship" [4]

"Verily, the religion (of Islam) is easy..." [5]

and numerous other examples which point towards this principle. Rest assured, Zakâh is only due upon the wealthy (and, that too, only 2.5%) and a person paying his Zakâh should never run into any difficulty in fulfilling his obligation.

And Allâh knows best

Answered by (Abu Yousuf) M. Suhail

[1] فَإِنَّ رَسُولَ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم كَانَ يَأْمُرُنَا أَنْ نُخْرِجَ الصَّدَقَةَ مِنَ الَّذِي نُعِدُّ لِلْبَيْعِ "the Messenger of Allah (صلى الله عليه وسلم) used to command us to pay Sadaqah (Zakâh) of those items that we prepared for sale/trade." (Sunan abi Dawud)
[2] ما يريد الله ليجعل عليكم من حرج Qur-ân 5:6
[3] لا يكلف الله نفسا إلا وسعها Qur-ân 2:286
[4] يريد الله بكم اليسر ولا يريد بكم العسر Qur-ân 2:185
[5] إن الدين يسر [Bukhari, Nasa'i]

بسم الله والحمد لله والصلاة والسلام على رسول الله

Wa 'alaykumus Salâm

Firstly, it is important to realise and appreciate the sanctity of life and how each human has been honoured and has a status:

"And We have certainly honoured the children of Adam ... and preferred them over much of what We have created, with preference." [1]

To kill a human is an abominable act and akin to killing the entire mankind:

"...whoever kills a soul unless for a soul or for corruption in the land - it is as if he had killed the entire mankind" [2]

The soul/life is entered into the foetus after 120 days, therefore it is a live, human being after that period of time.

"Each one of you collected in the womb of his mother for forty days, and then turns into a clot for an equal/similar period (of forty days) and turns into a piece of flesh for a similar period (of forty days) and then Allah sends an angel and the soul is breathed into him" [3]

Abortion is, therefore, not permissible under any circumstance after 120 days. It would be equivalent to infanticide which was prevalent in pre-Islam Arabia:

"And when the girl [who was] buried alive is asked for what sin she was killed" [4]

It is also not permissible within 120 days except in extreme circumstances. In your case, it would require diagnosis from a reliable, competent, practising Muslim doctor to determine and be certain or almost certain of irreversible, incurable damage to your wife's mental health[5]. In that scenario, it would be permissible to terminate within 120 days, otherwise not.

If your wife is indeed pregnant and is not diagnosed in the manner described above, here are some suggestions:

• Reduce/replace breastfeeding or have someone else breastfeed the youngest child
• Make her free from any/all housework to make things easier for her
• Offer plenty of moral support/help and be patient with her

May Allâh make it easy for you and grant 'âfiyah

And Allâh knows best

Answered by (Abu Yousuf) M. Suhail

[1] ولقد كرمنا بنى اٰدم وحملنٰهم فى البر والبحر ورزقنٰهم من الطيبٰت وفضلنٰهم علىٰ كثير ممن خلقنا تفضيلا Qur-ân 17:70
[2] من قتل نفسا بغير نفس أو فساد فى الأرض فكأنما قتل الناس جميعا Qur-ân 5:32
[3] إِنَّ أَحَدَكُمْ يُجْمَعُ خَلْقُهُ فِي بَطْنِ أُمِّهِ أَرْبَعِينَ يَوْمًا ثُمَّ يَكُونُ فِي ذَلِكَ عَلَقَةً مِثْلَ ذَلِكَ ثُمَّ يَكُونُ فِي ذَلِكَ مُضْغَةً مِثْلَ ذَلِكَ ثُمَّ يُرْسَلُ الْمَلَكُ فَيَنْفُخُ فِيهِ الرُّوحَ [Bukhari, Muslim]
[4] وإذا الموؤدة سئلت بأى ذنب قتلت Qur-ân 81:8-9
[5](فاباحة الاسقاط محمولة على حالة العذر (رد المحتار, مطلب في اسقاط الحمل

بسم الله والحمد لله والصلاة والسلام على رسول الله

Each person who is a sane adult has full right over their own wealth and how they spend it. A woman who possesses wealth does not need permission from her husband to decide how and where to spend the wealth. She has full choice in the matter and may spend it on herself or her parents, donate to charity, etc. as she sees fit as long as the expenditure/transaction is permissible. The husband has no right to prevent her.

However, in a marriage, there should be co-operation, harmony, balance, affection, etc. Depending on the circumstance, it may be considered good manners to discuss with or consult the husband and seek his advice. Sometimes, the husband may mean well and doesn't intend to control her. However, seeking his permission or even informing him is not necessary at all.

Consider the following verses, all of which prove that a women has the right to decide what do with her wealth without asking anyone's permission just like a man has.

"And if you divorce them before you have touched them and you have already specified for them an obligation (mahr)[1], then [give] half of what you specified - unless they (the women) forego the right..."[2]

"And give the women [upon marriage] their [bridal] gifts (mahr)[1] graciously. But if they give up willingly to you anything of it, then take it in satisfaction and ease (without fear)."[3]

"And test the orphans [in their abilities/intelligence] until they reach marriageable age. Then if you perceive in them sound judgement, release their property to them..." [4]

The last verse above makes no distinction between male and female.

Similarly, we also find evidence in the Hadith which clearly demonstrate that they are allowed to dispose of their wealth without seeking permission from their husbands, fathers or anyone else, e.g.

فَيَأْمُرُ بِالصَّدَقَةِ فَيَكُونُ أَكْثَرَ مَنْ يَتَصَدَّقُ النِّسَاءُ

"...and (he would) enjoin giving charity, and the ones who gave most charity were the women."[5]

Allâh knows best
Abu Yousuf

[1] bridal money/dower given by the husband to his wife at the time of marriage
[2] al-Baqarah 2:237
[3] al-Nisa’ 4:4
[4] al-Nisa’ 4:6
[5] an-Nasa'i, ibn Majah

بسم الله والحمد لله والصلاة والسلام على رسول الله

When money is deposited in a bank account, it is effectively a loan.

There is a general principle:

“Every loan which derives a benefit is riba (interest).” [1]

therefore a gift or reward from a bank which is stipulated, expected, agreed or customary is not permissible.

And Allah knows best

[1] كل قَرضٍ جرّ منفعة فهو ربا (Harith, Bayhaqi - slight variation in wording). The Hadith is weak. However, it is supported by other narrations and many sayings of the Companions, its meaning is correct, it is a fiqhi (juristic) principle, there is scholarly consensus and it is the practice of the scholars through the ages. For more information, see The Text of the Historic Judgment on Interest, Mufti Taqi Uthmani, 99-106: http://www.albalagh.net/Islamic_economics/riba_judgement.shtml

بسم الله والحمد لله والصلاة والسلام على رسول الله

Wa alaykumus Salaam

According to Hanafi Fiqh, only fish is permissible to consume from the sea. A detailed discussion on the issue of seafood and its status is available in books of Fiqh, Qur-an Tafseer, Hadith commentaries and Fatawa. For the sake of brevity and since you accept this general ruling, a single Hadith shall suffice:

“Two kinds of dead meat have been permitted to us: fish and locusts.” [1]

Calamari (squid) is not a fish and, therefore, not permissible.

A person is not held to account for something done by mistake or unintentionally:

"Our Lord, call us not to account if we forget or make a mistake. He the (Lord) said: I indeed did it. " [2]

"Allah has forgiven my nation for mistakes and forgetfulness, and what they are forced to do." [3]

This means that it does not require tawbah (repentance). It also does not result in your duas not being accepted for 40 days or any other time period. Incidentally, the period of 40 days is mentioned for Salaah:

"Whoever drinks wine, Salah (prayer) is not accepted from him for forty days" [4]

but there is a general non-acceptance of duas for a person intentionally eating Haraam:

"He then made a mention of a person who travels widely, his hair disheveled and covered with dust. He lifts his hand towards the sky (and thus makes the supplication): "O Lord, O Lord," whereas his diet is unlawful, his drink is unlawful, and his clothes are unlawful and his nourishment is unlawful. How can then his supplication be accepted?" [5]

It would, therefore, be prudent to seek forgiveness (istighfar).

However, it is very important to be cautious and careful in future to ensure we don't make the same mistake again:

"A believer is not stung twice from the same hole." [6]

The importance of consuming only that which is Halaal and good (wholesome/pure) has been greatly emphasised in the Qur-an and Hadith. We also find the Prophet (صلى الله عليه وسلم) and the Sahabah (companions) exercising extreme caution when consuming food, therefore we should also take extra precautions to ensure we only eat of the Halaal and pure things.

And Allah knows best

[1] أُحِلَّتْ لَنَا مَيْتَتَانِ الْحُوتُ وَالْجَرَادُ (ibn Majah, Ahmad - slight variation in wording)
[2] رَبَّنَا لاَ تُؤَاخِذْنَا إِنْ نَسِينَا أَوْ أَخْطَأْنَا‏]‏ قَالَ قَدْ فَعَلْتُ] (al-Qur-an 2:286; Sahih Muslim 125)
[3] إِنَّ اللَّهَ تَجَاوَزَ عَنْ أُمَّتِي الْخَطَأَ وَالنِّسْيَانَ وَمَا اسْتُكْرِهُوا عَلَيْهِ (ibn Majah, Bayhaqi and others)
[4] مَنْ شَرِبَ الْخَمْرَ لَمْ يَقْبَلِ اللَّهُ لَهُ صَلاَةً أَرْبَعِينَ صَبَاحًا (Jami` at-Tirmidhi, Sunan abi Dawud, Sunan an-Nasa'i & Sunan ibn Majah with variation in wording)
[5] ثُمَّ ذَكَرَ الرَّجُلَ يُطِيلُ السَّفَرَ أَشْعَثَ أَغْبَرَ يَمُدُّ يَدَيْهِ إِلَى السَّمَاءِ يَا رَبِّ يَا رَبِّ وَمَطْعَمُهُ حَرَامٌ وَمَشْرَبُهُ حَرَامٌ وَمَلْبَسُهُ حَرَامٌ وَغُذِيَ بِالْحَرَامِ فَأَنَّى يُسْتَجَابُ لِذَلِكَ (Sahih Muslim, Jami` at-Tirmidhi)
[6] لاَ يُلْدَغُ الْمُؤْمِنُ مِنْ جُحْرٍ وَاحِدٍ مَرَّتَيْنِ (Sahih al-Bukhari, Sahih Muslim, Sunan abi Dawud and Sunan ibn Majah with slight variations)

بسم الله والحمد لله والصلاة والسلام على رسول الله

Wa 'alaykumus Salaam

No, Zakâh is only due on the property which was purchased with the express intention to resell and remains so[1][2][3][4]. Once the intention changes, it is no longer considered as merchandise/"stock in trade" for Zakâh purposes[3][5]. Likewise, if you are undecided and/or you purchased it as an investment (and not for resale), it would not be subject to Zakâh even if you then intend to sell it afterwards (until it is sold)[3]. The rental income that you receive would be subject to Zakâh.

And Allâh knows best.

[1] فَإِنَّ رَسُولَ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم كَانَ يَأْمُرُنَا أَنْ نُخْرِجَ الصَّدَقَةَ مِنَ الَّذِي نُعِدُّ لِلْبَيْعِ "the Messenger of Allah (صلى الله عليه وسلم) used to command us to pay Sadaqah (Zakâh) of those items that we prepared for sale/trade." (Sunan abi Dawud)
[2] (أو نية التجارة ) في العروض إما صريحا ولا بد من مقارنتها لعقد التجارة كما سيجيء أو دلالة بأن يشتري عينا بعرض التجارة أو يؤاجر داره التي للتجارة بعرض فتصير للتجارة بلا نية صريحا (الدر المختار )
[3] لا يبقى للتجارة ما ) أي عبد مثلا ( اشتراه لها فنوى ) بعد ذلك ( خدمته ثم ) ما نواه للخدمة ( لا يصير للتجارة ) وإن نواه لها ما لم يبعه بجنس ما فيه الزكاة ) والفرق أن التجارة عمل فلا تتم بمجرد النية بخلاف الأول فإنه ترك العمل فيتم بها ( وما اشتراه لها ) أي للتجارة ( كان لها ) لمقارنة النية لعقد التجارة (الدر المختار)
[4] Ahsanul Fatawa (4/277)
[5] ((لأن الشرط في التجارة مقارنتها لعقدها وهو كسب المال بالمال بعقد شراء أو إجارة (الدر المختار وحاشية ابن عابدين (رد المحتار

People usually recommend and assume that Mahr Fâtimi is the "Sunnah"/recommended amount of mahr. However, we would recommend mahr ازواج النبي (Mahr azwâjin Nabiyy; also known as Mahr al-azwâj). This is the mahr (dower/bridal gift) given by the Nabî صلى الله عليه وسلم to his wives. Here are a number of reasons why this is superior to Mahr Fâtimi:

1. It is proven through authentic sources: Abu Salamah b. 'Abd ar-Rahmân reported: "I asked 'Â-ishah, the wife of Allâh's Messenger (صلى الله عليه وسلم): 'What is the amount of dower of Allâh's Messenger (صلى الله عليه وسلم)?' She said: 'It was twelve ûqiyyah and one nash.' She said: 'Do you know what is an-nash?' I said: 'No.' She said: 'It is half of ûqiyyah, and it amounts to five hundred dirhams, and that was the dower given by Allâh's Messenger (صلى الله عليه وسلم) to his wives.'" [1]
   On the other hand, there is no primary Hadîth source for the exact amount of Mahr Fâtimi.
2. Mahr ازواج النبي was given multiple times whilst Mahr Fâtimi was only given once.
3. Mahr ازواج النبي was given by Nabî صلى الله عليه وسلم himself to his own wives whilst Mahr Fâtimi was given by someone else (despite being a noble companion, his son-in-law) to his daughter.
4. There is no dispute in the amount. It is exactly 500 dirhams. There are at least 4 different opinions on Mahr Fâtimi which differ greatly ranging from 400 dirhams (approx. 1225g of silver) to 400 mithqâl (approx. 1750g of silver). Even if we wanted to give this mahr (ignoring the above points), we couldn't say with certainty which one was correct anyway.

To find out the latest price of Mahr al-azwâj, see our daily updated mahr prices.

And Allâh knows best

[1] Sahîh Muslim: Book of Marriage

People automatically assume Mahr Fâtimi when they want to give the "Sunnah"/recommended amount. This is the mahr given by 'Ali رضي الله عنه to Fâtimah رضي الله عنها (the daughter of the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم).

Whilst this is quite commendable, yet there is no authentic source for the exact value of this mahr. This is why there are a number of different opinions about how many dirhams or other weight measure Mahr Fâtimi actually is. These range from 400 dirhams to 480 dirhams and even 500 dirhams. There's also another opinion of 400 mithqâl (approx. 1750g). None can be said with any certainty as none of these figures are found in any primary Hadîth source.

On the other hand, we have an authentic reliable mahr given by the Nabî صلى الله عليه وسلم himself to his own wives. This is known as Mahr al-azwâj or Mahr azwâjin Nabiyy (مهر أزواج النبي - The dower of the wives of the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم). We would recommend this in place of mahr fâtimi for the above (and other) reasons.

To find out the latest price of mahr al-azwâj, see our daily updated mahr prices.

And Allâh knows best

Zakâh is payable on whatever you possess on your nisâb date (the date when you reached nisâb). Ignore all fluctuations in between the nisâb date of one year to the next. As long as you're at or above nisâb on your nisâb date, you would pay Zakâh on what you possess on your nisâb date.

So to answer your question, you don't need to wait 12 months for each part of your income/wealth/assets. Even if only 1 day had passed on that new wealth (i.e. it was received just the day before your nisâb date), but at both ends of the year, you possessed assets above nisâb, you would pay Zakah upon that wealth too.

This also makes Zakâh calculations much simpler too. There's no need to keep a running total/tally. You can simply look at your assets and liabilities/debts on one day (the nisâb date) and calculate based on the total value.

And Allâh knows best

Firstly, Zakâh is an individual obligation, so Zakâh is due upon each single person who must pay their Zakâh separately from each other, including spouses.

For the purposes of Zakâh, you should calculate how much you each own from your assets and calculate and pay the Zakâh accordingly.

It is permissible for the husband to pay on behalf of his wife or vice versa with their permission.

Assuming the money belongs to one person, you would add all three amounts together and pay Zakâh on the total.

However, you can deduct any expenses (bills, rent, etc.) that have already been incurred. See our calculator guide for more information.

You also have the choice of paying the Zakâh due on the loans (10,000) when you receive them. If you choose to do this, you will need to keep an account of the amount and the number of years as you would need to pay for all previous years when you receive your money. If that sounds complicated and considering the relatively small amount due, I would suggest paying every year with the rest of your Zakâh.

So, assuming no other expenses/debts, the total Zakâh due would be 50,000+5,000+10,000 = 65,000 x 2.5% = $1,625.00.

And Allâh knows best.

Zakâh becomes due on gold at approx. 87.48g. [1]

Note, however, that this would only be in the case where you have only gold assets. If you have a mixture of cash, gold or silver (and perhaps business stock), you'd use the silver nisâb level which currently is much lower.

This silver nisâb changes every day (depending on the current price of silver), but we have daily updated prices on our site - see Zakâh Nisâb and Mahr prices - daily updates.

To calculate the Zakâh on your gold and other assets, you can use our Zakâh calculator to work it out. Type in the number of grams you have under the heading Gold and select "grams" next to it. It should display the result automatically.

And Allâh knows best

[1] Awzân Shar-'iyyah (اوزان ﺷﺮﻋﯿﮧ): Mufti Muhammad Shafi رحمه الله

The price of gold changes daily, so the answer to your question depends on when you calculate your Zakâh.

Our Zakâh nisâb prices tool has the latest updated prices for both the gold and silver nisâb. Depending on whether you're viewing on a desktop or a mobile, the prices for nisâb and gold tola should display on the right or below respectively.

If you look at our Zakâh Calculator, under Gold, you can select either tola or grams and then just enter the weight of the gold and it should work out both the value and the Zakâh due automatically. This assumes 24ct (pure) gold. If you possess lower carat gold, you will need to obtain these from your local jeweller. For more information, please see the Zakâh calculator guide.

And Allâh knows best.